Intermediaries' Obligation to Pursue Complaints Against Infringers: Analysing the Latest Interpretation

The recent interim order dated March 1, 2023, issued by the Delhi High Court in Samridhi Enterprises vs. Flipkart Internet Private Ltd.[1] had sparked a lot of debate and confusion among the public concerning the liability of an intermediary. As per the order of the High Court, an intermediary is not obligated to take action in cases of infringement reported by their users. The Hon’ble Court delved deeply into the interpretation of Rule 3 of the IT (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021, on the question of whether there exists an obligation on the part of intermediaries to act on complaints against infringers.   

Facts

The plaintiff was in the business of manufacturing and selling car covers under the marks “UK Blue” and “Autofact” and had been selling them on Flipkart since 2018. The plaintiff happened to notice that some other entities started to copy their designs, looks and marketing strategies on the Flipkart platform itself. Apart from the fact that the covers were identical, the infringers also sold these covers in a fashion similar to that of the plaintiff’s company to create confusion and boost their sales.

The plaintiff had informed and reported to Flipkart about the infringement of their products by placing screenshots and other similar evidences of infringement committed by the infringer on record. The platform refused to take any action against the infringers and advised the plaintiff to approach a court of law for redressal of IPR disputes.

The plaintiff approached the Delhi High Court, citing that Flipkart cannot act as an intermediary if it fails to adhere to its obligations as an intermediary and to observe important due diligence mandated by Rule 3(2) of the IT (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021.

Law Involved

Rule 3(1)(b)(iv) requires intermediaries to inform their users of their privacy policy, rules and regulations and user agreement and shall make reasonable efforts to ensure that any information that infringes any patent, copyright, trademark, or other proprietary rights shall not be hosted, displayed, uploaded, modified, published, transmitted, stored, updated, or shared by the intermediary.

Rule 3(2)(a) of the IT rules requires the intermediary to publish on its website the details of the grievance officer and the mechanism by which a user could complain about any possible violations. Further, it requires the officer to acknowledge the complaint within 24 hours and resolve the issue within a period of 15 days.  

The plaintiff relied on these two sections to further their claim of infringement against Flipkart. 

Rule 3 (2)(1) (proviso) provides for intermediaries to acknowledge any complaint within 24 hours and resolve all such complaints within 15 days from their receipt. Moreover, the proviso also calls upon the intermediary to develop appropriate safeguards to avoid any misuse by users.

The Ruling

The Hon’ble Court was of the opinion that Rule 3(2)(a) only envisages complaints regarding violations of the obligation imposed on the intermediary under the rules. There is no scope for the intermediary to take any kind of action against the infringer upon receipt of the complaint. The same argument was also put forth by the court when the question surrounding Rule 3(1)(b)(iv) was raised, and the court clarified that the rule merely provides for intermediaries to inform users not to display or host infringing content. The rule does not mandate or require the intermediary to take any action upon receipt of the complaint of infringement.   

The Hon’ble Court stated that it cannot read into IT rules something that the rules do not contain expressly or by necessary implication. It further said that, “where the applicable statutory rules do not envisage action being taken by an intermediary merely on the complaint being made by an aggrieved victim or user regarding infringement of intellectual property rights, by content posted on the platform of the intermediary, the court cannot, by placing reliance on an internal policy of a particular intermediary, read into Clause 3 any such requirement, especially where such a provision existed in the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021 and has consciously been omitted in the 2021 Rules”.  

The Hon’ble Court was of the opinion that the complaint against Flipkart that it is not taking action does not appear to be sustainable due to the above-mentioned reasons. However, a prima facie case of copyright violation was made out by the court and in order to protect the plaintiff from any further damages, an interlocutory injunction was granted against listing the alleged infringing content.

General Observations 

Though the Hon’ble Court did grant the injunction to protect the plaintiff from the ongoing infringement occurring on the platform, the main essence of the IT Act and rules was not taken into consideration while discharging Flipkart of any liability.

The plaintiff erred in not considering the many precedents laid by this very same court. For instance, in Super Cassettes Industries Ltd. vs. Myspace Inc. & Anr1, the court said that “I find that there is no impact of the provisions of Section 79 of the IT Act (as amended in 2009) on copyright infringements relating to internet wrongs where intermediaries are involved and the said provision cannot curtail the rights of the copyright owner by operation of the proviso of Section 81 which carves out an exception for cases relating to copyright or patent infringement”. 

The case witnessed that the Indian Copyright Act, 1957, overrode the provision of the safe harbour granted by the IT Act under Section 79. The Hon’ble Court relied on Section 81 of the IT Act, which provides for an exemption for people exercising their rights under the Copyright Act and the Patent Act. The Hon’ble Court should have recognised this precedent and acknowledged the obligation it posed to the intermediary to remove such infringing products from its platform.   

It doesn’t end here. The court should have considered in what instance the immunity available for intermediaries will be impacted under Section 79 of the IT Act. Section 79(3)(b) of the IT Act states that upon receiving actual knowledge of an unlawful act connected to the computer resource controlled by the intermediary, the intermediary shall expeditiously remove or disable access to such infringing material. If such action is not undertaken by the intermediary, it shall lose the safe harbour guaranteed by Section 79. If safe harbour protection is not available, then allowing an infringement to take place on their platform may constitute abetment and unlawful activity which in turn would make them liable under the law of the land.  

Another striking part of the order is that, even though the Hon’ble Court completely relied on the IT (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021, the court failed to read into Rule 3 (2) (1) of the IT Rules 2021. The proviso of the rule clearly stipulates that any complaint received from the user other than under Subclauses (i), (iv), and (ix) needs to be expeditiously resolved within 72 hours by the grievance officer. That does not take away the primary obligation of the intermediary to act within the 15 days mandated in the main provision in relation to such excluded matters, including cases of IP infringement. It is astonishing that the court or the parties gave more emphasis to the proviso than the main clause under Rule 3(2)(a)(i). 

Initially, Rule 3(2)(b) was worded as follows: “(i) acknowledge the complaint within twenty-four hours and dispose off such complaint within a period of fifteen days from the date of its receipt;  

(ii) receive and acknowledge any order, notice or direction issued by the Appropriate Government, any competent authority or a court of competent jurisdiction.”.   

On October 28, 2022, the government amended the above rule to read as follows: “acknowledge the complaint within twenty-four hours and resolve such complaint within a period of fifteen days from the date of its receipt: 

Provided that the complaint in the nature of request for removal of information or communication link relating to clause (b) of sub-rule (1) of rule 3, except sub-clauses (i), (iv) and (ix), shall be acted upon as expeditiously as possible and shall be resolved within seventy-two hours of such reporting;  

Provided further that appropriate safeguards may be developed by the intermediary to avoid any misuse by users;” 

The intention of this amendment is to prescribe faster action for certain kinds of wrongdoings and expect them to act within 72 hours. At the same time, for those others (sub-clauses (i), (iv) and (ix)) the original time frame of 15 days for taking action remains. Without a doubt, the goal of this amendment is not to encourage platform users to behave irresponsibly or complacently despite being aware that the platform is frequently used to violate intellectual property rights. It merely provides them with sufficient time and excludes the requirement of compliance within 72 hours.

The intermediary is still obligated to undertake the due diligence described in Rule 3(1)(b)(iv), and if they do not do so and do not take action within fifteen days even after becoming aware of the infringement, the immunity from liability specified in Section 79 will end. The safe harbour will be eliminated because the proviso to Section 81 of the IT Act clearly indicates that IP rights are to be expected to be protected by the intermediary.

Conclusion

The Hon’ble Court was right in granting the injunction in favour of the plaintiff to restrain Flipkart from allowing such infringing products on their platforms.

However, the Hon’ble Court erred by not making a harmonious reading of Rule 3 (2) (a) of the IT (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021, with Section 79 (3) (b) and the proviso to Section 81 of the IT Act. An isolated reading of the provision and discharging Flipkart of their liability under the IT (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021 seems to be an oversight.

The proviso appended to the said section provides that nothing contained in this act shall restrict the exercising of any right by any person under the Copyright Act. This, along with Section 79 (3) of the IT Act, mandates the intermediary not to conspire, abet or aid any infringement and to remove the infringing material on receiving actual knowledge of it.  

The above-referred order will only help the intermediaries and platforms to behave irresponsibly and indifferently even when an intellectual property owner notifies them of infringement on their platforms. It compels aggrieved intellectual property owners to initiate legal action for every infringement, which is expensive to carry out. IT (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021, was primarily made to make the platforms more responsible and ethical. Allowing them to act irresponsibly through a limited interpretation of law is unconscionable.

References:

1. CS (COMM) 63/2023

The recent interim order dated March 1, 2023, issued by the Delhi High Court in Samridhi Enterprises vs. Flipkart Internet Private Ltd. (CS (COMM) 63/2023) had sparked a lot of debate and confusion among the public concerning the liability of an intermediary. Though the Hon’ble Court did grant the injunction to protect the plaintiff from the on-going infringement occurring on the platform, the main essence of the IT Act and rules was not taken into consideration while discharging Flipkart of any liability.

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Decoding IT Amendment Rules: The Hits and Misses

On April 6, 2023, the Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY) notified the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Amendment Rules, 2023 to amend the 2021 Rules. In this article, the important changes introduced to the Rules are highlighted.

Introduction

Through the amendment, the Ministry intends to make a few changes to the intermediary eco-system by introducing new due-diligence requirements for intermediaries. It can be broadly summarised under two heads – partial censorship of digital media, and regulation of online gaming intermediaries. 

Partial censorship of digital media

The new amendment requires social media intermediaries, significant social media intermediaries and online gaming intermediaries to follow additional due diligence. It aims to regulate digital media by disallowing the publication of such information related to the business of the Central Government which is identified or declared as fake, false, or misleading by a fact-checking unit set up by the Central Government. This addition to the rules would make it mandatory for the intermediaries to take down (when given a notice by the user) any piece of information that is declared fake or misleading by the fact-checking authority. It is unclear from the amendment if the information checked by the already established fact-checking authority would warrant take-down, but with the available information, it would be reasonable to assume that any information fact-checked and deemed fake by the PIB fact-check mechanism would warrant takedown.

This part of the amendment has been challenged by a political satirist, Mr. Kunal Kamra. He filed a writ petition with the Bombay High Court with the averment that the amendment with respect to establishing a separate unit by the Central government to fact-check digital media is violative of Articles 14, 19(1)(a), and 19(1)(g) of the Indian Constitution and that it is ultra vires Section 79 of the Information Technology Act, 2000. The Bombay High Court has now directed MeitY to file its response within one week on why the IT Amendment Rules, 2023 should not be stayed, and also describe the factual background that necessitated the issuance of the amendments. The affidavit has been ordered to be filed by April 19, 2023, and the matter has been listed on April 21, 2023.

Regulation of online gaming intermediaries

Earlier, a draft of the amendment (pertaining to online gaming) to the 2021 Rules was released in January 2023; though the draft lacked clarity on the kind of online games it intended to regulate (click here to read more). Further, it did not delve into differentiating between games that are in the form of wagering/betting and those which are not. The current amendment attempts to overcome these shortcomings by providing for an ‘online gaming intermediary’ and stipulating the due-diligence requirements for such intermediaries.  

The amendment defines an online gaming intermediary as one that enables users to access one or more online games. It further defines an ‘online real money game’ that is played with real money, where the users are asked to deposit money. The amendment allows the online gaming intermediary to host only those games which are permissible online games and are certified by the online gaming self-regulatory body.

Disallowing online wagering and betting games.

As per the new amendment, social media intermediaries or online gaming intermediaries are not allowed to host an online game which is not verified as a ‘permissible online game’, or any information or content which is in the nature of an advertisement or a surrogate advertisement of such non-permissible online games. It also prohibits the hosting of such games that causes harm to the user.

Permissible online real money game

The amendment further clarifies that for a game to be certified as a permissible online real money game, any member of the online gaming self-regulatory body that enables online real money game can make an application to the online gaming self-regulatory body. The said private body is set up for the sole purpose of acting as an online-gaming self-regulatory body and is notified by the Central Government. It has the power to decide whether an online game is permissible or not. The regulatory body will inquire and ensure that the game does not involve any wagering and that the gaming intermediaries or the online game undertakes all the due diligence laid down in the Rules. Additionally, it shall also ensure that the permitted games are not against the interest of the country. It also has safeguards that protect users against harm, risk of addiction, financial loss, fraud, etc by providing repeated warnings or such. The body is required to adhere to the principles of natural justice. While the self-regulatory body has the power to certify an online game as a permissible one, the Central Government still reserves the right to suspend the certification if it believes that the said game is not in conformity with the Rules.

This is a private body set up for the sole purpose of acting as an online-gaming self-regulatory body and is notified by the Central Government. In brief, they have the power to decide whether an online game is permissible or not.

Due-diligence requirements

Previously, Rules 3 and 4 of the Rules stipulated the due-diligence requirements for social media intermediaries and significant social media intermediaries. With this amendment, such due-diligence requirements in Rules 3 and 4 are extended to online gaming intermediaries too.

Through these amendments, in addition to the existing due diligence requirements under Rules 3 and 4, the online gaming intermediaries that enable permissible real money games have certain additional due-diligence requirements like requiring to display a visible mark of verification, and inform the users about the policy related to the deposit and withdrawal of money, the KYC norms that they follow, the measures taken to protect the deposits made amongst others.  

Online games which are not real-money games do not have to follow the additional due-diligence requirements by default, the Central Government by notification may direct an intermediary to undertake certain due-diligence requirements.

Conclusion

The IT amendment rules are an improvement on the previously proposed amendment to the 2021 Rules. The definitional ambiguity is removed and a step is taken toward regulating online games that are based on wagering. It also makes the self-regulation of online gaming intermediaries more transparent by stipulating for disclosure of decision-making reasons, etc.

Image Credits:

Photo by anyaberkut: https://www.canva.com/photos/MADCr_H7g_U-it-concept-information-technology-diagram/ 

The new amendment requires social media intermediaries, significant social media intermediaries and online gaming intermediaries to follow additional due diligence. It aims to regulate digital media by disallowing the publication of such information related to the business of the Central Government which is identified or declared as fake, false, or misleading by a fact-checking unit set up by the Central Government. This addition to the rules would make it mandatory for the intermediaries to take down (when given a notice by the user) any piece of information that is declared fake or misleading by the fact-checking authority. It is unclear from the amendment if the information checked by the already established fact-checking authority would warrant take-down, but with the available information, it would be reasonable to assume that any information fact-checked and deemed fake by the PIB fact-check mechanism would warrant takedown.

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